orthopaedics quiz
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Time limit: 20 minutes
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Question 1
Multiple choiceA 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with severe pain in his knee and an inability to bear weight. His parents report that he recently had a sore throat followed by a fever. Upon examination, the joint is swollen and warm to touch. Laboratory tests reveal an elevated white blood cell count and CRP levels. What is the most appropriate initial management for this child?
Explanation
The most appropriate initial management is to administer antibiotics and conduct a joint aspiration to relieve pressure and gather samples for culture, as this child likely has septic arthritis following an infection.
Question 2
Multiple choiceA 45-year-old male presents with a painful, swollen elbow joint that has developed over the past week. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on immunosuppressive therapy. On examination, the joint is erythematous and markedly tender. What is the most critical factor to consider in diagnosing his condition?
Explanation
The most critical factor is the patient's immunosuppressed state, which increases the risk for opportunistic infections, necessitating careful consideration in diagnosis and treatment.
Question 3
Multiple choiceA 67-year-old patient with diabetes presents with leg pain and a recurrent ulcer on his foot. The ulcer has not healed and is discharging pus. Upon examination, there is suspected osteomyelitis, and the patient's blood tests show elevated inflammatory markers. Which of the following is the most effective first step in management?
Explanation
The most effective first step is to initiate intravenous antibiotics and prepare for possible surgical debridement, as this is crucial for managing potential osteomyelitis in a diabetic patient.
Question 4
Multiple choiceA 32-year-old intravenous drug user presents with fever, chills, and a painful swollen wrist. There are prominent signs of inflammation and swelling extending from the joint into surrounding tissues. Blood cultures reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus. What should be the next best step in management?
Explanation
The best management step is urgent surgical drainage to alleviate pressure and remove infected material, especially given the systemic signs of infection and the joint involvement.
Question 5
Multiple choiceA 75-year-old woman presents to the orthopedic clinic with persistent joint pain in her hip. She has a history of osteoarthritis and has been taking NSAIDs. Recent radiographs show narrowing of the joint space and osteophyte formation. There are concerns regarding her kidney function. Which management option should be considered first?
Explanation
Corticosteroid injection is a suitable initial management option to provide targeted relief of inflammation while considering her compromised renal function that limits NSAID use.
Question 6
Multiple choiceA surgeon encounters a patient with diabetic foot involving an ulcer and suspected osteomyelitis following soft tissue infection. After initiating broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, what is the most crucial intervention to coordinate next?
Explanation
The most crucial next intervention is scheduling surgical intervention for debridement and bone culture, as it is essential for managing the infection effectively.
Question 7
Multiple choiceA 29-year-old male arrives in the emergency department after stepping on a nail. He is tachycardic and febrile, with local redness and swelling at the puncture site. An X-ray reveals no obvious bone involvement, but there is concern for possible underlying osteomyelitis. What is the immediate management step?
Explanation
Starting intravenous antibiotics and preparing for surgical consultation is essential given the signs of systemic infection and potential osteomyelitis.
Question 8
Multiple choiceDuring a routine check-up, a 55-year-old woman mentions pain in her left knee, worsened by movement, and recent weight loss. An MRI reveals joint effusion with synovial thickening, but no signs of infection. Laboratory results show negative rheumatoid factor. What should be the next step in management?
Explanation
Considering the concerning symptoms, a synovial tissue biopsy is essential to rule out neoplastic processes or other conditions that could be causing the joint effusion.
Question 9
Multiple choiceA 40-year-old male patient with a history of alcohol abuse presents with sudden onset of severe lower back pain and fever. Imaging studies reveal a lytic lesion in the lumbar spine. Laboratory results indicate elevated inflammatory markers, and cultures are pending. What should be the most immediate course of action?
Explanation
The immediate course of action should include starting antibiotics and evaluating the need for surgical intervention due to the potential for a spinal infection.
Question 10
Multiple choiceA professional athlete presents with a swollen, painful knee after a significant trauma during a game. Imaging studies indicate a joint effusion, and aspiration demonstrates blood in the joint. What diagnosis should be prioritized in this case?
Explanation
The findings of blood in the joint following trauma suggest an acute hemarthrosis, which is common after significant joint injuries in athletes.
Question 11
Multiple choiceA patient is referred for evaluation of chronic foot pain after surgery to address a sports injury. The surgical site shows no signs of acute infection, but there is persistent swelling at the incision site with no improvement over the last three months. What initial action should the surgeon take?
Explanation
Imaging is necessary to identify any underlying issues contributing to the chronic swelling and pain at the surgical site, which may reveal complications such as osteomyelitis.
Question 12
Multiple choiceAfter undergoing an elective hip replacement, a 60-year-old male begins to experience increasing pain and fever despite initially recovering well. Examination and imaging indicate a joint effusion. What should be the first step in managing this condition post-operatively?
Explanation
Immediate joint aspiration for culture is critical to identify any potential infection, alongside the initiation of intravenous antibiotics to address a possible prosthetic joint infection.
Question 13
Multiple choiceDuring a routine visit, a pediatric patient with recurrent osteomyelitis is noted to have a subperiosteal abscess in the right femur. What would be the preferred management at this stage?
Explanation
Urgent surgical drainage is necessary to address the subperiosteal abscess and prevent further complications from the underlying osteomyelitis.
Question 14
Multiple choiceA 34-year-old male patient arrives in the emergency department with severe pain in his lower back, fever, and a reduced range of motion. Recent investigations reveal a case of acute osteomyelitis affecting the lumbar spine, likely stemming from a previous urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate initial management step for this patient?
Explanation
Intravenous antibiotics are critical in managing acute osteomyelitis to control the infection effectively. Surgical intervention may be needed later, but starting antibiotics immediately is paramount. Delaying treatment, even for observation, risks further complications or worsening of the condition.
Question 15
Multiple choiceA 50-year-old diabetic female presents with a chronic, non-healing ulcer on her left foot, accompanied by fever and malaise. Clinical examination shows a necrotic area with dead tissue. What is the best management strategy for this patient’s infected ulcer?
Explanation
Immediate surgical debridement is essential to remove necrotic tissue and reduce the infection load in chronic ulcers, while antibiotics alone will not adequately address the underlying issue. Topical treatments are ineffective for such an advanced condition.
Question 16
Multiple choiceDuring a surgical procedure to remove an infected prosthetic joint, the orthopedic surgeon notices that the surrounding tissue shows signs of being heavily infiltrated by biofilm-forming bacteria. What should be done to ensure effective management of the infection?
Explanation
The presence of biofilm requires aggressive debridement of all infected tissues and removal of any foreign materials to prevent recurrence of infection. Relying solely on antibiotics will not be effective against biofilm-associated infections.
Question 17
Multiple choiceA 10-year-old boy presents with pain and swelling in his left knee, and a recent history of fever and malaise. X-rays show joint effusion but no apparent osteomyelitis. What would be the best initial diagnostic approach?
Explanation
Joint aspiration allows the clinician to obtain a sample of synovial fluid to analyze for infection, inflammation, and potential pathogens. This is a critical step before starting antibiotics or initiating further invasive procedures.
Question 18
Multiple choiceAn 18-year-old female presents with pain, swelling, and warmth in her right wrist after a recent dental procedure. She is febrile, and blood cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus. What is the critical next step in her management?
Explanation
In cases of septic arthritis where there is confirmed infection with a positive blood culture, surgical drainage is necessary to remove pus and alleviate pressure in the joint, which is crucial for recovery. Antibiotics alone are insufficient prior to drainage.
Question 19
Multiple choiceA 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis and recent surgery presents with an inflamed knee joint. His fluid analysis shows elevated white blood cell count suggestive of infection. What is the most appropriate approach to manage this case?
Explanation
Starting empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics is essential in cases of suspected septic arthritis to prevent further deterioration. Delaying treatment for culture results increases the risk of joint damage due to infection.
Question 20
Multiple choiceA 37-year-old male presents to the clinic with necrotizing fasciitis after a superficial laceration. Imaging shows widespread soft tissue involvement, but no significant bone involvement. In addition to broad-spectrum IV antibiotics, what is the critical intervention this patient requires?
Explanation
Immediate surgical debridement is crucial in cases of necrotizing fasciitis to remove all necrotic tissue, which is necessary for recovery. Antibiotics alone are not sufficient for managing such aggressive infections.