muscoloskeletal pathology
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Question 1
Multiple choiceA 25-year-old woman presents with a swelling on her upper arm, which she notes has been progressively increasing in size. A biopsy reveals an osteosarcoma. Which factor is most likely to influence her prognosis?
Explanation
The histological grade of an osteosarcoma is a strong determinant of prognosis, as it correlates with the aggressiveness of the tumor and potential for metastasis. The age and site may influence treatment options but are secondary to the tumor's histological characteristics.
Question 2
Multiple choiceA female patient in her 60s is diagnosed with Paget disease, resulting in bone deformities and frequent fractures. Given the complexity of her case, which strategy would be the most effective for addressing her condition?
Explanation
Bisphosphonates are the first-line treatment for Paget disease and help manage bone remodeling and symptoms. Regular follow-up without treatment, invasive surgery, or immobilization would not effectively address her complex needs.
Question 3
Multiple choiceA 40-year-old man presents with thigh swelling of two months' duration. He reports intermittent pain and a sensation of heaviness in the limb. Physical examination reveals significant tenderness and a fluctuant mass. Imaging studies are inconclusive, and a biopsy is planned. What is the most critical initial investigation to guide further management of this patient?
Explanation
An MRI provides detailed imaging that is crucial for characterizing soft tissue masses, aiding in distinguishing between benign and malignant processes. A CT scan may miss soft tissue details, and starting antibiotics without clear evidence of infection is premature.
Question 4
Multiple choiceA 12-year-old boy with type 1 diabetes sustains a left femur fracture while playing football. He has a history of poor glycemic control. Which complication should be anticipated as a result of his systemic condition?
Explanation
Poor glycemic control in diabetes can impair immune response and blood supply, making chronic osteomyelitis a significant risk. Delayed union is possible but not linked directly to his diabetes as an initial complication.
Question 5
Multiple choiceA 20-year-old man reports a firm nodule around his knee that has increased in size over the past several months. Imaging suggests a potential bone tumor. What would be the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?
Explanation
Biopsy is crucial to obtain histological confirmation before any treatment, as it informs the type of tumor and therefore the appropriate management strategy. Surgery is premature without a diagnosis.
Question 6
Multiple choiceA 30-year-old male athlete sustains an open fracture of the tibia and fibula during a sports event. He has a history of steroid use for performance enhancement. Considering these factors, what complication should he be monitored for during recovery?
Explanation
Steroid use for performance can significantly impair immune function, increasing infection risk post-surgery. Improved nutrient delivery and rapid recovery due to fitness are misconceptions.
Question 7
Multiple choiceA pediatric patient presents with a persistent limp and localized pain in the hip joint. Imaging reveals avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Given the age and clinical presentation, which underlying condition is most likely associated with this diagnosis?
Explanation
Avascular necrosis in a pediatric patient is commonly associated with sickle cell disease due to the increased likelihood of occlusion in microvasculature. The other conditions are less directly linked to avascular necrosis.
Question 8
Multiple choiceAn elderly woman with a chronic infection presents with narrowing of the bone cavity upon imaging. A biopsy confirms a diagnosis of chronic osteomyelitis. Which histopathological finding is most expected in this condition?
Explanation
In chronic osteomyelitis, multi-nucleated giant cells are typically indicative of the body's response to chronic inflammation and infection. The other options are more indicative of different pathological conditions.
Question 9
Multiple choiceA 50-year-old man with a history of chronic pancreatitis presents with a newly identified mass in the abdomen. CT imaging suggests a potential diagnosis of pancreatic cancer. What is the best management strategy for addressing this patient’s condition?
Explanation
A biopsy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer before determining a management plan, making it a crucial step. Surgical resection and chemotherapy should only follow after histological confirmation.
Question 10
Multiple choiceA 14-year-old girl presents with knee swelling after a sports injury. An MRI shows a lesion in the distal femur suggestive of an osteosarcoma. Which treatment approach would be ideal to maximize her prognosis?
Explanation
The most effective treatment for osteosarcoma includes limb-salvage surgery followed by chemotherapy, which has been shown to improve prognosis significantly. Other options do not provide adequate treatment for this aggressive cancer.
Question 11
Multiple choiceA 22-year-old male presents with dysuria and pelvic pain. Imaging reveals a possible soft tissue sarcoma in the pelvic region. Which histological feature would be the most crucial for determining the specific type of sarcoma?
Explanation
The presence of eosinophilic myofibroblasts is indicative of specific types of soft tissue sarcomas, helping to differentiate between them. The other options alone cannot accurately determine the type of sarcoma.
Question 12
Multiple choiceA patient with a recent diagnosis of fibrous dysplasia presents with multiple bone lesions. What is the recommended initial management for this benign but potentially symptomatic condition?
Explanation
Symptomatic management is the primary strategy for fibrous dysplasia, focusing on addressing pain and specific lesions when symptomatic. Routine excision or chemotherapy is not indicated as the condition is generally benign and self-limiting.
Question 13
Multiple choiceA 19-year-old male reports increasing pain in his left knee, with imaging suggesting osteosarcoma. Given the bimodal distribution of age for this malignancy, what is a significant prognostic factor to consider for his treatment?
Explanation
The size of the tumor at presentation is a critical prognostic factor in osteosarcoma, as larger tumors are often associated with worse outcomes. Other factors listed are less directly related to prognosis.
Question 14
Multiple choiceA 65-year-old woman with a history of radiation therapy presents with a palpable mass in the soft tissue of her arm. Imaging reveals potential sarcomatous changes. What key histopathological element would help confirm the diagnosis?
Explanation
The presence of anaplastic spindle cells is characteristic of sarcomas and helps to confirm a diagnosis in the context of prior radiation exposure. The other options may indicate reactions or different conditions, but not specifically sarcoma.
Question 15
Multiple choiceA patient with achondroplasia presents with early onset osteoarthritis in the knees. Which factor is most likely contributing to the development of osteoarthritis in this individual?
Explanation
In individuals with achondroplasia, abnormal skeletal proportions lead to altered biomechanical forces across the joints, contributing to premature osteoarthritis. The other factors do not directly correlate to osteoarthritis development in this scenario.
Question 16
Multiple choiceA 40-year-old man presents with a two-month history of progressive thigh swelling and localized pain. Initial imaging suggests a soft-tissue mass, and preliminary blood tests indicate elevated inflammatory markers. Given the urgency to exclude possible neoplastic processes, including both benign and malignant lesions, what should be the next step in the management of this patient?
Explanation
Obtaining a biopsy of the lesion is crucial for determining the precise diagnosis, which will guide further treatment. While imaging such as MRI can provide important information, it cannot replace the need for histological evaluation in suspected tumors.
Question 17
Multiple choiceA 12-year-old boy with type 1 diabetes sustains a fractured left femur while playing football. After initial management, he is now at risk of complications due to his diabetes. Which complication should be prioritized in preventing to ensure optimal recovery from his fracture?
Explanation
Infection is a significant concern in diabetic patients due to compromised healing and potential for osteomyelitis post-fracture. While all the options present valid concerns, addressing infection is critical given the patient's diabetic status.
Question 18
Multiple choiceA 20-year-old male has developed a painful swelling around his knee over the past three months. Imaging studies indicate a well-defined mass with cortical involvement. Considering the patient's age and the characteristics of the lesion, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Explanation
Given the age of the patient and the imaging findings that suggest a malignant process with cortical involvement, osteosarcoma is the most likely diagnosis. Chondrosarcoma would be less common, and osteochondroma typically presents as a cartilaginous cap over a bony stalk.
Question 19
Multiple choiceA 35-year-old woman is found to have a soft-tissue mass in her thigh during a routine health check. Histopathological analysis of the biopsy suggests a pleomorphic sarcoma, raising concerns about potential metastases. What radiological evaluation is most appropriate to assess for distant spread of the disease?
Explanation
A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is the most effective method for evaluating soft-tissue sarcomas for potential metastases, particularly to the lungs, since this malignancy has a high propensity for hematogenous spread.
Question 20
Multiple choiceA 50-year-old man with a history of Paget's disease presents with chronic bone pain, swelling, and a recent increase in fracture incidence. After imaging studies identify areas of bone dysregulation, what should be the primary intervention to reduce the risk of complications related to his current condition?
Explanation
Bisphosphonates are the primary pharmacological treatment for Paget's disease and can significantly reduce bone pain and the risk of fractures. While other options might temporarily alleviate symptoms, they do not address the underlying bone dysregulation.